Question: Let $f(x)=ax^2+bx+1$. Given any linear function $g(x)$, find the values of $a$ and $b$ for which $\int_0^1 f(x)g(x)dx = 0$ is always true.
1. **State the problem:** We want to find values of $a$ and $b$ such that for any linear function $g(x) = cx + d$, the integral $$\int_0^1 f(x)g(x) \, dx = 0$$ always holds.
2. **Express the integral:** Substitute $f(x) = ax^2 + bx + 1$ and $g(x) = cx + d$:
$$\int_0^1 (ax^2 + bx + 1)(cx + d) \, dx = 0$$
3. **Expand the integrand:**
$$(ax^2 + bx + 1)(cx + d) = a c x^3 + a d x^2 + b c x^2 + b d x + c x + d$$
4. **Rewrite integrand grouping powers of $x$:**
$$a c x^3 + (a d + b c) x^2 + (b d + c) x + d$$
5. **Integrate term-by-term from 0 to 1:**
$$\int_0^1 a c x^3 \, dx = a c \frac{1}{4}$$
$$\int_0^1 (a d + b c) x^2 \, dx = (a d + b c) \frac{1}{3}$$
$$\int_0^1 (b d + c) x \, dx = (b d + c) \frac{1}{2}$$
$$\int_0^1 d \, dx = d$$
6. **Sum the integrals:**
$$a c \frac{1}{4} + (a d + b c) \frac{1}{3} + (b d + c) \frac{1}{2} + d = 0$$
7. **Rewrite the equation grouping terms by $c$ and $d$:**
$$c \left( a \frac{1}{4} + b \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} \right) + d \left( a \frac{1}{3} + b \frac{1}{2} + 1 \right) = 0$$
8. **Since $c$ and $d$ are arbitrary (any linear $g(x)$), the coefficients must be zero:**
$$a \frac{1}{4} + b \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} = 0$$
$$a \frac{1}{3} + b \frac{1}{2} + 1 = 0$$
9. **Solve the system:**
Multiply first equation by 12 to clear denominators:
$$3a + 4b + 6 = 0$$
Multiply second equation by 6:
$$2a + 3b + 6 = 0$$
10. **Use elimination:**
Multiply second equation by 3:
$$6a + 9b + 18 = 0$$
Multiply first equation by 2:
$$6a + 8b + 12 = 0$$
Subtract:
$$(6a + 9b + 18) - (6a + 8b + 12) = 0 \Rightarrow b + 6 = 0 \Rightarrow b = -6$$
11. **Find $a$:** Substitute $b = -6$ into $2a + 3b + 6 = 0$:
$$2a + 3(-6) + 6 = 0 \Rightarrow 2a - 18 + 6 = 0 \Rightarrow 2a - 12 = 0 \Rightarrow 2a = 12 \Rightarrow a = 6$$
12. **Final answer:**
$$a = 6, \quad b = -6$$
These values ensure that $$\int_0^1 f(x)g(x)dx = 0$$ for any linear function $g(x)$.